KPSC KAS 2015 Preliminary Exam Paper- 1 (Questions & Solutions)

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Questions and Answers:

1. Match the Name of the Shifting Cultivation (List I) with the Country (List II) :

List I (Name of the Shifting Cultivation)		List II (Country)
A	Huma/Ladang	I	Brazil
B	Milpa	II	Vietnam
C	Ray	III	Central America
D	Roca	IV	Indonesia

      

  Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
                  A       B     C     D
         (1)    IV     III    II      I
         (2)    IV     III     I      II
         (3)    III     IV    II      I
         (4)    III     IV     I      II

Answer: Option (1)

Explanation: Shifting Cultivation or Jhum Cultivation is a form of agricultural practice in which a plot of land  is cleared of vegetation and cultivated for few years and then abandoned for new area until its fertility is naturally restored. It is primitive form of agriculture and it is known by different names in different regions/countries, such as

•          Ray – Vietnam
•          Milpa- Cental America
•          Roca- Brazil
•          Huma/Ladanga- Java and Indonesia
•          Chena – Srilanka
•          Taungya- Burma

2. Consider the following statements about Morley-Minto reforms.
   A. It is also known as Indian Councils Act, 1909.
   B. It effectively legitimised the election of Indians to the various legislative councils in
       India for the first time.
   C. The British conceded the so-called demand of Muslim leaders for separate electorate
        in this act.
        Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
       

 Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
    (1) A and B only
    (2) B only
    (3) B and C only
    (4) A, B and C

Answer: Option (4)

Explanation: Morley-Minto Reforms

• It is Also Known as Indian Councils Act 1909. Statement 'A' is Correct
• Direct elections to legislative councils : first attempt at inducing a representative and popular element. Statement 'B' is Correct
• It Changed the name of the central legislative council to the imperial legislative council.
• The members of central legislative council was increased to 60 from 16
• It introduced a system communal representation for muslims by accepting the concept of separate electorate. Statement 'C' is Correct
• Indian's for the first time in the Viceroy's executive council: Satyendranath Sinha as law member.

3. Match the following coal deposit locations (List I) with their countries (List II) :

List I (Cole Deposit Location)		List II (Country)
A	Sichuan	I	U.S.A
B	Pensylvania	II	China
C	Kizel	III	Australia
D	Ipswich	IV	India
E	Talcher	V	Russia

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
 
                  A      B    C     D    E
         (1)     I      II    III    V    IV
         (2)     II     III   IV     I    V
         (3)     II     I     V     III   IV
         (4)     I      III   II     V    IV

Answer: Option(3)

Explanatiom : Coal is combustible sedimentary rock formed by organic matter. When large tracts of forest buried under the earth due to tectonic movements, the pressure and heat within the earth turn wood/organic matter into coal. it is most abundant and used fossil fuel.

Coal is classified  based on carbon content present and time period to form.

1. Anthracite :  It is the best quality of coal with highest calorific value and carries 80 to 95% carbon content.
2. Bituminous: It has a low level of moisture and volatile content (15 to 40%) with 60 to 80% of carbon content and has a high calorific value.
3. Lignite : It carries 40 to 55% carbon content and is often brown in colour with high moisture content.
4. Peat: It  is the first stage of transformation from wood to coal with low calorific value and less than 40% carbon content.

Coal Deposits:

• Sichuan - China
• Pensylvania - USA
• Kizel - Russia
• Ipswich - Australia
• Talcher- India (Odisha)

4. 46th session of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) will take place in September, 2017 in which of the following places ?
(1) Guadalajara
(2) Montreal
(3) New Delhi
(4) Kyoto

Answer: Option (2)

Explaination: Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

• The IPCC is an intergovernmental body of the United Nations responsible for advancing knowledge on human-induced climate change.
• Established: It was establishe by United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) and the World Meteorological Organisations(WMO)in 1988.
• Objective of the IPCC is to provide governments at all levels with scientific information that they can use to develop climate policies.
• Composition : 195 member states.
• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.

5. At which of the following places did the 2017 G20 summit, the twelfh meeting of the Group of Twenty Countries (G20), take place in July 2017 ?
(1) Hamburg, Germany
(2) Seine, Paris
(3) New York, USA
(4) London, UK

Answer: Option (1)

Explanation: The G20 or Group of 20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and European Union. It works to address major issues related to the global economy, such as international financial stability, climate change mitigation and sustainable development

Member countries : Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, The United Kingdom, the United States and the EU.

G20 Summits:

• 12th summit - 2017- Hamburg, Germnay
• 16th Summit - 2021- Rome, Italy
• 17th Summit - 2022 - Nusa Dua, Bali, Indonesia
• 18th Summit - 2023- New Delhi, India

6. Consider the following statements:
     A. Savanna climate is also known as Sudan type climate.
     B. The Savanna climate is a transitional type of climate found between the equatorial forests and the

         trade wind hot deserts.
     C. It is characterised by an alternate and distinct hot rainy season and cool dry season.
     D. The Savanna type of climate is also found in the south-western part of South America and

          southern part of Australia.

     Which of the above statements are correct ?
     Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
     (1) A and C only
     (2) B and C only
     (3) A, B and C only
     (4) A, B, C and D

Answer: Option (3)

Explanation:

• The Savanna Climate is a transitional type of climate found between the equatorial forests and the trade wind hot deserts. Statement 'B' is Correct
• It is confined within the tropics and best developed in the Sudan where the dry and wet seasons are most distinct, hence its name the Sudan Climate. Statement 'A' is corrrect
• The Sudan Climate Includes - West African Sudan, and then curves southwards into East Africa  and southern Africa north of Tropic of Capricorn. In South America, there are two distinct regions of savanna north and south of equator, namely the llanos of the Orinoco Basin and the Compos of the Brazilian Highlands. The Australian Savanna is located south of the monsoon strip running from west to east north of the tropic of capricorn.  Statement 'D' is Incorrect
• The Sudan Type of climate is characterised by an alternate hot, rainy season and cool, dry season. Statement 'C' is Correct

7. With reference to World War II, Germany Italy and Japan together were known as
(1) The Resistance Movement
(2) The Axis Powers
(3) The Allies
(4) The Big Three

Answer: Option(2)

Explaination:

• World War II, also called Second World War, was a conflict that involved virtually every part of the world during the years 1939–45.
• There were two principal opposing Military Alliances, the Allies and the Axis Powers.
• The Allied includes- France, Great Britain, the United States and the Soviet Union
• The Axis Powers Includes - Germany, Italy and Japan
• Result: The Allied powers won the war.

8. Match the following animals (List I) with their wildlife sanctuaries (List II):

List I (Animal)		List II (Wildlife Sanctuary)
A	Chinkara	I	Ranebennur
B	Blackbuck	II	Daroji
C	Four-Horned Antelope	III	Rangayyanadurga
D	Sloth Bear	IV	Yadahalli

       

  Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:

                  A     B      C     D
         (1)    II     III     I      IV
         (2)    IV     I     III     II
         (3)    IV   III     I       II
         (4)    IV     I     II      III

Answer: Option(2)

Explanation: The Wild Life(Protection)Act (WPA) of 1972 provided for the declaration of certain areas by the state Government as a wild life sancuaries if the area was thought to be of adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance.

• Wildlife sanctuaries can be created for the protection and conservation of particular specias.
• Wildlife sanctuaries of India are classified as IUCN category IV protected areas.
• The central government may, if it is satisfied that an area is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, natural or zoological significance, for the purpose of Protecting, Propagatingor developing wild life  or its environment, declare it a sanctuary/National Park by notification.

WLS:

Chinkara - Yadahalli WLS

Blackbuck - Ranebennur Blackbuck sanctuary

Sloth Bear - Daroji WLS

Four Horned Antelope - Rangayyanadurga

9. Choose the correct statement about Aman – 17.
    (1) It is a naval exercise organised by Iran in order to win the confidence of the Middle
     East.
    (2) It is the first space exploration programme by Afghanistan with the help of ISRO.
    (3) It is a multi-country naval exercise organised by Pakistan.
    (4) It is a music concert for Hindustani and Pakistani music in India.

Answer: Option(3)

Note: Current affairs based question of that time.

Category: Military  Exercises

10. For the Census 2011, Census Town should have satisfied which of the following criteria?
    A. Minimum population of 5000.
    B. At least 50 percent of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural 
    pursuits.
    C. A density of population of at least 400 per sq. km.
    

    Which of the above criteria are correct?
    Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
    (1) A and B only
    (2) A and C only
    (3) B and C only
    (4) A, B and C

Answer: Option(2)

Explaination: Population Census is a total process of  Collecting, compiling, evaluating, analysing and publishing demographic, economic and social data at specific time, of all persons in a country or a well defined part of the country.

    According to the Population Census an urban area is either a Statutory town or Census Town.

• Statutory Town: Any area with Minicipal Corporation, Municipal Council or Cantonment Board.
• Census Town: It can be a place with Urban characteristics.
• A Population of more than 5000. Statement 'A' is Correct.
• A population density is more than 400per sq.km. Statement 'C' is correct.
• At least 75% of the male main working population engaged in non agricultural pursuits. Statement 'B' Incorrect

11. Match the types of mountains (List I) with the mountain (List II):

List I (Types of Mountains)		List I (Mountains)
A	Fold Mountains	I	Mount Mayon and Fuji
B	Block Mountains	II	Rockies, Alps and Andes
C	Volcanic Mountains	III	Mount Monadnock
D	Residual Mountains	IV	Black Forest of Rhineland and Hunsruck mountains

 

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
                  A     B    C     D
         (1)    I      II     IV    III
         (2)    II     IV      I    III
         (3)    III    II       I    IV
         (4)    II     III      I    IV

Answer: Option(2)

Explanation:

Fold Mountains: Fold mountains are formed due to large collision of tectonic plates which results in subduction and folding of plates.

 Ex: Himalayas, Andes, Rockies and Alps

Block Mountains: Block Mountains are formed due to rifting and faulying followed by relative verstical displacement of earth crust. Block mountains are known as Horst.

Ex: Hunsruck Mountains, the Vosgesand Black Forest of Rhineland.

Volcanic Mountains: These are formed due to the accumulation of Volcanic Materials such as lava, Pyroclast (Burnt Rocks+ Ash) and other debris generated by Volcano. These Volcanic Mountains are also known as Mountains of Accumulation.

Ex: Mt. Fuji (Japan), Mt. Mayon (Philippines), Mt. Merapi ( Sumatra), Mt. Agung (Bali) and Mt. Catapoxi(Equator)

Residual Mountains: These are the Mountains formed by the denudation of elevated area be it high mountains or Plateaux.

Ex: Mt. Monadnock ( USA), Highlands of Scotland, Scandinavia

12. Which is the world’s most heavily used inland waterway ?
(1) Danube Waterway
(2) Rhine Waterway
(3) Volga Waterway
(4) Mississippi Waterway

Answer:Option(2)

13. Match the following items of List I with List II

List I		List II
A	Third Schedule	I	Allocation of Seats in Upper House
B	Eighth Schedule	II	Disqualification on grounds of defection
C	Fourth Schedule	III	Validation of certain acts
D	Tenth Schedule	IV	Official Languages of the republic of India
		V	Forms of Oaths and affirmation

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
                  A     B      C     D
         (1)     I     III    IV     II
         (2)    V     IV    I       II
         (3)    V     IV    II      I
         (4)    I      IV    II     III

Answer: Option(2)

Explanation: Schedules of Indian Constitution

Schedule Number	Subject Matter
First Schedule	Names of the States and Union Territories with their Territorial Jurisdiction.
Second Schedule	Provisions relating to emoluments, allowances and previleges.
Third Schedule	Forms of Oaths and Affirmations.
Fourth Schedule	Allocations of the seats in Rajyasabha to the states and Union Territories.
Fifth Schedule	Provisions relating to the administration and control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state escept the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Sixth Schedule	Provision relating to the administration of Tribal areas in the states of Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya and Mizoram.
Seventh Schedule	Division of Powers between Union and states. List I (Union), List II (States), List III (Concurrent List)
Eighth Schedule	Languages Recognised by the Constitution
Ninth Schedule	Provisions related to validation of certain acts and regulations.
Tenth Schedule	Provisions relating to disqualifications of members of Parliament and State legislatures on the ground of defection.
Eleventh Schedule	It Contains the provisions that specify the power, authority and responsibility of Panchayats.
Twelfth Schedule	It deals with the provisions that deals with the power, authority and Responsibility of Municipalities

14. Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution abolished the Privy Purses and 

       Privileges of the rulers of the former Indian States ?
      (1) 26th Amendment
      (2) 28th Amendment
      (3) 30th Amendment
      (4) 32nd Amendment

Answer: Option(1)

15. Arrange the following in chronological order:

    A. August Offer 1940
    B. Simla Conference1945
    C. Cripps Mission 1942
    D. Cabinet Mission Plan 1946
  

  Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
   (1) A, B, C, D
   (2) B, D, C, A
   (3) A, C, B, D
   (4) D, B, C, A

Answer : Option(3)

Timeline:

• 1940 : August Offer
• 1942: Cripps Mission
• 1945: Simla Conference
• 1946: Cabinet Mission Plan

16. K.E. Mammen, the noted Gandhian and freedom fighter passed away recently. He
      hailed from which of the following States ?
     (1) Karnataka
     (2) Andhra Pradesh
     (3) Kerala
     (4) Tamil Nadu

Answer: Option(3)

17. Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to allow inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited period in specific States. Which of the following States needs ILP for Indian citizens from outside those States to travel in protected areas?
      A. Manipur
      B. Mizoram
      C. Nagaland
      D. Arunachal Pradesh
      E. Assam
    

 Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) A, B, C and D only
    (2) B, C and D only
    (3) D and E only
    (4) A, B, C, D, E

Answer: Option(4)

18. Which one of the following writs is issued by the High Court to a lower court or a quasi-judicial body to stop proceedings in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction ?
      (1) Habeas Corpus
      (2) Prohibition
      (3) Quo Warranto
      (4) Certiorari

Answer: Option(2)

Explanation:

Habeas corpus: A writ of habeas corpus means that the court orders that the arrested person should be presented before it. It can also order to set free an arrested person if the manner or grounds of arrest are not lawful or satisfactory. 

 

Mandamus: This writ is issued when the court finds that a particular office holder is not doing legal duty and thereby is infringing on the right of an individual. 

 

Prohibition: This writ is issued by a higher court (High Court or Supreme Court) when a lower court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction.  

Quo Warranto: If the court finds that a person is holding office but is not entitled to hold that office, it issues the writ of quo warranto and restricts that person from acting as an office holder. 

 

Certiorari: Under this writ, the court orders a lower court or another authority to transfer a matter pending before it to the higher authority or court.

19. Match the Articles of the constitution (List I) with the subjects (List II):

List I (Articles of the Constitution)		List II (Subjects)
A	Artcle 155	I	All India Services
B	Article 201	II	Presidents power to appoint the Governor
C	Article 213	III	Instructions of the President required for the governor to make ordinance relating to certain matters
D	Article 312	IV	Bills reserved for consideration of the President by the Governor

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
                  A     B     C      D
         (1)     I      II    III    IV
         (2)    II      III    I     IV
         (3)    II      IV   III     I
         (4)    IV     III   II      I

Answer: Option(3)

Explanation:

• Article 155 : Appointment of Governor
• Article 201 : Bills Reserved for consideration of the president by the Governor
• Article 213 : Instructions of the President required for the governor to make ordinance relating to                       certain matters
• Article 312 :All India Services

20. Consider the following statements regarding calling attention :
      A. It is an Indian innovation in the Parliamentary procedure.
      B. It is introduced in the Parliament by a Member of Parliament to call attention of a minister to  

           matter of urgent public importance and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that

            matter.
      C. It involves an element of censure against the Government.
      D. Unlike Zero Hour which finds no mention in the Rules of Procedure, the calling attention is

           mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
     

     Which of the above statements are correct ?
     Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) A, B and C only
    (2) B, C and D only
    (3) A, B and D only
    (4) A, C and D only 

Answe: Option(3)

Explaination: Calling Attention Motion

• It is introduced in the parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance , and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. Statement 'B' is correct.
• It can be moved in Rajyasabha as well as loksabha and it do not in an element of censure against the government.. Statement'C' is incorrect.
• It is Indian Invention in the parliamentary procedure. Statement'A' is correct
• Unlike Zero Hour which finds no mention in the Rules of Procedure, the calling attention is
  mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Statement 'D'is Correct

21. The Islamic Sultanates of the Deccan (Ahmednagar, Bijapur, Golconda, Berar, Bidar) combined in

      1565 to inflict a crushing defeat on the ruler of the Hindu Vijayanagar empire in the Battle of

      Talikota. Who was the king of Vijayanagar at that time ?

      (1) Rama Raya
      (2) Satyaki
      (3) Tirumala
      (4) Sadashiva Raya

Answer:Option(4)

Explanation: Sadashivaraya was was king at the time of war but Ramaraya was powerful military Commander and virtual ruler of Vijayanagara Empire of that time.

22. Consider the following statements regarding the Committee on Public Undertakings :
    A. The Committee consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha).
    B. The members of the Committee are elected by the Parliament every year.
    C. The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its

         members drawn from the Lok Sabha.
    D. The Chairmanship of the Committee is rotated among the members drawn from the Lok Sabha

         and the Rajya Sabha.

    Which of the above statements are correct ?
    Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) A, B and C only
    (2) B and D only
    (3) A, B and D only
    (4) A and B only

Answer: Option(1)

Explanation: Commiittee on Public Undertakings.

• The committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
• The Committee consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha). Statement 'A'  is correct
• The Members of this Committee are elected by the parliament every year from amongst its own members according to principle of proportional representations by means of a single transferable votes. Statement 'B' Is correct
• The chairman of the committee appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Loksabha Only. Statement  C Correct
• The members of the committee who are from the Rajyasabha cannot be appointed as a chairman.
• Statement 'D' is incorrect

23. The employment elasticity refers to which of the following?
(1) Percentage change in employment with 1% point change in economic growth
(2) Creation of jobs per unit of investment
(3) Creation of jobs per unit of unemployed people
(4) None of the above

Answer:Option(1)

Explanation: Employment Elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with a 1 percentage point change in economic growth. The employment elasticity indicates the ability of an economy to generate employment opportunities for its populations percent of its growth(Development) process.

24. Which of the following statements regarding the pardoning power of the President is/are correct?
      A. He has the pardoning power in respect of a sentence by a court martial.
      B. He can grant reprieve and respite in case of punishment for an offence against any law of the

           land, Union or State.
      C. He alone can pardon a sentence of death.

       Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
       (1) A only
       (2) C only
       (3) A and C only
       (4) A, B and C

Answer:Option(3)

Explanation: Pardoning Power of the President of India

    Article 72 of the Constitution empowers president to grant  pardon, reprieve, respite, remit or commute the punishment to the persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence in all cases where the:

• Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law. Statement 'B" is incorrect
• Punishment or sentence is by Court martial (Military Court). Statement 'A' is correct
• Sentence is a sentence of Death

The president can pardon death sentence while governor cannot. Even if state law prescribes death sentence, the power to grant pardon liea with the president and no the governor.However, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence. Statement 'C' is Correct

25. He was the Commander-in-chief of the army of Rani Chennamma. He fought with the British using guerrilla tactics. Who is this famous freedom fighter of Karnataka ?
(1) Muduvidu Krishnarao
(2) Aluru Venkata Rao
(3) Jogi Beeranna Nayak
(4) Sangolli Rayanna

Answer: Option(4)

26. Match the travelers (List I) with the Kings of Vijayanagara empire (List II) during whose period they have visited:

List I (Travelers)		List II (Kings)
A	Abdur Razzak	I	Devaraya I
B	Nicolo Conti	II	Devaraya  II
C	Fernao Nuniz	III	Krishna Devaraya
D	Barbosa	IV	Achyuta Raya

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
                  A     B     C     D
         (1)     I     II     IV    III
         (2)    II      I     IV    III
         (3)    I      II     III    IV
         (4)    I      IV    II     III

Answer: Option(2)

List of Travellers and Kings:

• Nicolo Conti - Devaraya I
• Abdur Razzak - Devaraya II
• Fernao Nuniz - Achyuta Raya 
• Barbosa - Krishna Devaraya
• Dominigo Paes - Krishna Devaraya

27.  The Maharaja of Mysore appointed which Committee in 1918 to investigate and report on the steps to be taken to encourage members of the important committees other than the Brahmins to seek employment under the government?
(1) L.G. Havanur Committee
(2) Nagana Gowda Committee
(3) Mecland Committee
(4) Leslie Miller Committee

Answer: Option(4)

Explanation:

- L.G. Havanur Committee was formed in 1972, It made an effort to identify backward classes and presented its report in 1975.

- Nagana Gowda Committe was formed in 1960 to classify backward classes and make suitable recommendations

28. Match the Committees of the constituent assembly (List I) with their chairmen (List II)

List I (Committee)		List II (Chairman)
A	House Committee	I	K. M. Munshi
B	Order of Business Committee	II	Pattabhi Sitaramayya
C	Union Constitution Committee	III	Sardar Patel
D	Provincial Constitution Committee	IV	Jawaharlal Nehru
		V	Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

        Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
                  A     B     C     D
         (1)     V     II    IV     I
         (2)    II      I     IV    III
         (3)    V      II    IV    III
         (4)    I       II    IV    III

Answer: Option(2)

Explanation: Committees of Constituent assembly

        Several committees were constituted to perform the various tasks associated with framing of the constitution. Some of the major and minor constituent assembly committees are given below:

Major Committes:

1. Union Powers committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Union Constitution committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial constitution committee:  Sardar Patel
4. Drafting committee:  Dr BR Ambedkar
5. Advisory committee on Fundamental Rights, minorities and Tribal and excluded areas-  Sardar Patel. It had following sub-committees:

• FR sub-committee: JB Kripalani
• Minorities sub-committee: HC Mukherjee
• North-East frontier Tribal Areas and Assam excluded and partially excluded areas sub-committee- Gopinath Bardoloi
• Excluded and partially excluded areas sub-committee: AV Thakkar

6. Rule procedure committee: Dr Rajendra Prasad
7. States committee for negotiating with states: Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Steering committee: Dr Rajendra Prasad

Minor Committes

1. Committee on the functions of the constituent Assembly: GV Mavalankar
2. Order of Business committee: Dr KM Munshi
3. House committee: B Pattabhi Sitaramayya
4. Ad-hoc committee on the National flag: Dr Rajendra Prasad
5. Special committee to examine the draft constitution: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

29.  Recently, NASA had launched OSIRIS-REx for a mission which is the first of its kind from the

       USA. Choose the mission objective from the following :
      (1) To find water molecules in the atmosphere of Jupiter
      (2) To explore the moons of Jupiter
      (3) To reach Mars’ surface in search of water molecules
      (4) To collect samples from the asteroid 101955 Bennu and to return to Earth

Answer: Option(4)

Note : Question is From Current Affairs of that time

Category : Space missions of Various Organizations in the world.

30. The Autonomous District Councils in tribal areas
      A. have executive power.
      B. have no judicial power.
      C. have no legislative power.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
    Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) A and B only
    (2) A and C only
    (3) A only
    (4) C only

Answer: Option(3)

Explanation: 

    The Constitution, Under Sixth Schedule, Contains Spacial provisions for the administration of Tribal Areas in the Four North Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya Tripura and Mizoram.Under this Sixth Schedule Governor is Empowered to organise and re-organise the Autonomous Districts.

    Each Autonomous District has District Council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elcted on the basis of Adult Franchise.

       These Autonomous Councils in the tribal areas have Legislative powers, Judicial Powers and Executive powers.

31. Which Amendment Act is known as the Anti-Defection Act ?
(1) Fifty-Second Amendment
(2) Sixty-Second Amendment
(3) Sixty-Ninth Amendment
(4) None of the above

Answer:Option(1)

Explanation:

    The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of  defection from one political party to another. This Amendment added a new Schedule( the Tenth Schedule) to the constitution. This act is often reffered to as Anti Defection Law.

32. Chronologically arrange the following Chief Ministers of Karnataka in ascending order :
    A. Sri Veerendra Patil 
    B. Sri Kadidal Manjappa 
    C. Sri Gundu Rao 

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) B, C, A
    (2) B, A, C
    (3) C, A, B
    (4) C, B, A

 Answer: Option(2)

Timeline: 

• Sri. Kadidal Manjappa - 1956 
• Sri Vreerendra Patil - 1968-71 (First Term)/ 1989-90( Second Term)
• Sri. Gundu Rao - 1980-83

33.  Which of the following States and the year of their creation is incorrectly matched ?
(1) Andhra Pradesh – 1956
(2) Maharashtra – 1960
(3) Arunachal Pradesh – 1987
(4) None of the above

Answer: Option(1)

Explanation:

• State o Arunachal Pradesh Act 1986: Elevated the Union Territory of Arunachal Pradesh to the status of a 24th state of India on 20th February 1987.
• Andhra State Act, 1953: Formed the first Linguistic state, known as state of Andhra by taking out the Telugu speaking areas of State of Madras.
• Bombay Reorganisation Act 1960: Formed the new State of Gujarat (15th state) by taking out the Gujarati speaking areas from the Bombay and renamed the other part of the Bombay state as Maharashtra State.

34.  The Delimitation Commission of India determined that the total number of Parliamentary seats

       allocated to Karnataka be in the following ratio :
        A. Out of 28 Lok Sabha seats, 05 seats should be reserved for Scheduled Castes and 02 for

             Scheduled Tribes.
       B. Out of 28 Lok Sabha seats, 07 seats should be reserved for Scheduled Castes and 05 for                        Scheduled Tribes.
       C. Out of 224 Assembly seats, 76 seats should be reserved for Scheduled Castes and 28 for                        Scheduled Tribes.
       D. Out of 224 Assembly seats, 36 seats should be reserved for Scheduled Castes and 15 for                        Scheduled Tribes.
       

        Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
        Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
         (1) A and D only
         (2) B and C only
         (3) A only
         (4) None of the above

Answer:Option(1)

Explanation: 

       Delimitation is the Process of fixing limits or boundaries of a territorial constituency in a country or province.

• Under Article 82, The parliament Enacts delimitation Act after every Census.
• Under Article 170, States also get divided into territorial constituencies as per delimitation act after every census.

Delimitation Commission

The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.

Composition:

       1. Retired Supreme Court judge
 2.  Chief Election Commissioner
 3.  Respective State Election Commissioners

Functions:

     a).To determine the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population of all constituencies nearly equal.

     b). To identify seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, wherever their population is relatively large. 

In case of difference of opinion among members of the Commission, the opinion of the majority prevails. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.

In Karnataka:

1. Out of 28 Lok Sabha seats, 05 seats should be reserved for Scheduled Castes and 02

     for Scheduled Tribes.

2. Out of 224 Assembly seats, 36 seats should be reserved for Scheduled Castes and 15 for                        Scheduled Tribes.

35. The Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 in Karnataka came into force on
(1) 30th May, 1993
(2) 30th April, 1993
(3) 10th May, 1993
(4) 10th April, 1993

Answer: Option(3)

36. The President of India enjoys which of the following Veto powers ?
    A. Absolute Veto that is withholding of assent to the Bill passed by the Legislature.
    B. Qualified Veto which can be overridden by the Legislature with a higher Majority.
    C. Suspensive Veto which can be overridden by the Legislature with an ordinary Majority.
    D. Pocket Veto that is taking no action on the Bill passed by the Legislature.

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) A and B only

    (2) B and C only
    (3) A, B and C only
    (4) A, C and D only

Answer: Option(4)

Explanation:

The President of India is vested with three- Absolute veto, Suspensive Veto and Pocket Veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President; it is posessed by the American President.

37.  The States Reorganization Commission, 1953 was formed under the Chairmanship and the membership of
    (1) Chairman : Fazal Ali
     Members : H.N. Kunzru, K.M. Panikkar
    (2) Chairman : Jawaharlal Nehru
     Members : Vallabhbhai Patel, Pattabhi Sitaramayya
    (3) Chairman : S.K. Dhar  
     Members : J.N. Lal, Panna Lal
    (4) Chairman : Dr. B.R. Ambedkar  
     Members : K.M. Munshi, B.N. Rau

Answer: Option(1)

Explanation:

    In December 1953 Government India Appointed three member state Reorganisation Committee under the chairmanship of Fazal Ali. Its other two members were K.M. Panikkar and H.N.Kunzru. It Submitted its report in 1955 and broadly accepted language as the basis of reorganisation of states. But it rejected the theory of 'One Language- One state'. Its View was that its view was that the unity of India should be regarded as the primary consideration of any redrawing of the country's political units.

Four Major Factors that can be taken into account in any reorganisation scheme

• Preservation and Strengthening of the unity and security of the country
• Linguistic and Cultural Homogeneity
• Financial, economic and administrative considerations
• Planning and promotion of the welfare of the each state as well as the nation as a whole.

    S. K Dhar Committee was appointed in 1948, June by GoI, and it recommended the reorganisation of states on the basis of administrative convenience rather than linguistic factor.

    In 1948, December Government appointed a committee, Which Consists of Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhai Patel, Pattabhi Sitaramayya (Popularly Known as JVP committee). This committee formally rejected language as the basis of reorganisation of states. 

38. Match the following Committees (List I) with their Chairmen (List II):

List I (Committee)		List II (Chairman)
A	Committee on Civil Service reforms	I	P. C. Hota
B	Committee on Police reforms	II	Rajinder Sachar
C	Committee on status of Muslims	III	Naresh Chandra
D	Committee on Corporate Governance	IV	Soli Sorabjee

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
                  A     B    C     D
         (1)     I     IV    II    III
         (2)    II      IV    I     III
         (3)    III     II    IV    I
         (4)    I       II    III    IV

Answer : Option(1)

Explanation :

Committee on Civil Services Reforms - P. C. Hota

Committee on Police reforms - Soli Sorabji

Committee on Status of Muslims - Rajinder Sachar

Committee on Corporate Governance- Naresh Chandra

39. ‘‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal

        disturbance and ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the

        provisions of this Constitution.’’

Which among the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the above statement?
    (1) Article 355
    (2) Article 356
    (3) Article 352
    (4) Article 358

Answer: Option(1)

Category: Factual, Indian Constitution

40.  Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(1) Goram Ghat – Rajasthan
(2) Harischandra Mountain Range – Maharashtra
(3) Panchamalai – Kerala
(4) Arma-Konda – Andhra Pradesh

Answer: Option(3)

Explanation :

Panchamalai Hills  located in Tamilnadu.

41.  Arrange the following peaks of Karnataka in descending order of heights :
    A. Mullayanagiri 
    B. Baba Budangiri 
    C. Brahmagiri 
    D. Kodachadri 
    E. Pushpagiri 

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) A, B, C, D, E
    (2) A, B, C, E, D
    (3) A, B, E, C, D
    (4) A, E, B, C, D

Answer: Option(3)

Hights of Peaks and their Location:

• Mullayanagiri, Chikkamagaluru - 1930 mts
• Bababudangiri, Chikkamagaluru- 1895 mts
• Brahmagiri, Kodagu - 1608 mts
• Kodachadri, Shivamogga - 1343mts
• Pushpagiri, Kodagu- 1715mts

42. Which one of the following tribes resides in Tamil Nadu ?
(1) Gonds
(2) Bhils
(3) Todas
(4) Santhals

Answer: Option(3)

43. Match the Mountain Passes (List I) with the states (List II) in which they are located.

 

List I (Mountain Pass)		List II (State)
A	Dihang	I	Sikkim
B	Khardung La	II	Jammu & Kashmir
C	Jelep La	III	Himachal Pradesh
D	Debsa	IV	Arunachal Pradesh

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
                  A     B    C     D
         (1)     II     I     IV    III
         (2)     II     IV   III    I
         (3)    IV     II    III    I
         (4)    IV     II    I      III

Answer: Option(4)

Explanation: Mountain Passes and States

• Dihang - Arunachal Pradesh
• Khardungla- Jammu & Kashmir
• Jelep La - Sikkim
• Debsa- Himachal Pradesh

44.  Which one of the following States of India is the leading producer of Soybean ?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Chhattisgarh

Answer: Option(2)

Note: Madhya Pradesh is the leading producer of soybean followed by Maharshtra and Rajasthan.

45. Consider the following statements :
A. Jharkhand is the leading producer of bauxite.
B. Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer of mica.
C. Karnataka is the leading producer of iron ore.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) A and B only
(4) C only

Answer: Option(2)

Explanation:

• Odisha is the leading producer of Bauxite accounting for about 49% of total production followed by Gujarat (24%) and Jharkhand (9%). Statement 'A' is incorrect
• Andhra Pradesh is the Largest Producer of Mica in India. Statement 'B' is correct
• Orissa was the leading Producer of Iron ore that time. Statement 'C' is incorrect

46. Which one among the following is an appropriate description of deflation ?
(1) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other popular currencies of the world.
(2) It is a persistent recession in the economy for some considerable time period.
(3) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services.
(4) It is fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time.

Answer:Option(3)

Explanation:

Deflation : It is a persistant fall in the general price level of goods and services.

Disinflation : It is defined as a decrease in the rate of inflation over a period of time.

Currency depreciation: It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other popular currencies of the world.

Depression: It is a prolonged period of Economic recession marked by significant decline in income and employment.

47. During which of the following Mughal emperor’s time did Nadir Shah attack and loot Delhi and take the Peacock Throne with himself?
(1) Ahmed Shah
(2) Mohammad Shah
(3) Jahandar Shah
(4) Shah Alam

Answer: Option(2)

Explanation: Mohammad Shah was the Mughal Emperor between 1719 to 1748. During his time Nadir Shah attacked and looted Delhi and took the Peacock Throne with himself.

48. Consider the following statements :
    A. The World Wetlands Day is observed every year on 2nd February to raise awareness about the

         value of wetlands for humanity and the planet.
    B. The theme of World Wetlands Day for 2017 is ‘‘Wetlands for our Future: Sustainable

         Livelihoods’’.
    C. World Wetlands Day, 2017 was celebrated in Chilika Lake.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A only
(2) A and B only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C

Answer: Option(1)

Explanation:

• The World Wetlands Day is observed every year on 2nd February to raise awareness about the
   value of wetlands for humanity and the planet. Statement'A' is correct
• The theme of World Wetlands Day for 2017 is "Wetlands for Disaster Risk Reduction". Statement B is incorrect
• World Wetlands Day, 2017 was celebrated in Bhoj Wetlands Bhopal. Statement C is incorrect

Note: Update your Notes with recent Current Events with respect to Environmental conferences.

49. Who among the following from Karnataka participated in Gandhi’s Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha)?
(1) M.P. Nadkarni
(2) K.T. Bhashyam
(3) Mailara Mahadevappa
(4) T. Siddalingaiah

Answer: Option(1)

50. Recently, Majuli Island was declared as the world’s largest river island. Consider the following statements regarding the island :
    A. Majuli is the nerve centre of Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture initiated by Saint-               reformer Sankardeva in the 15th century.
    B. The island is formed by river Brahmaputra only.
    C. It is the first island district of the country.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) A and B only
    (2) B and C only
    (3) A and C only
    (4) A, B and C

Answer:Option(3)

Explanation: 

• Majuli River is surrounded by Subansiri River in the north, Brahmaputra river in the south and Kherkatia Suli, Split Channel of Bhrahmaputra River in North east. Statement 'B' in Incorrect

51. Which was the first Christian missionary to start a school in Mysore ?
(1) Sewell Missionary
(2) Mysore Missionary
(3) Wesleyan Missionary
(4) Basil Missionary  

 

Answer:Option(3)

Explanation:

Basel Missionary: Started School in Dharwad and South Kanara Districts

Weslayan Missionary : Mysore and Bangalore

52. Which of the following has launched India’s first ‘‘Agricultural Marketing and Farmer-friendly Reform Index’’ ?
(1) Ministry of Agriculture
(2) NITI Aayog
(3) Ministry of Rural Development
(4) Ministry of Science and Technology

Answer: Option(2)

53. Which of the following is/are true with respect to the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme (GBS)?
    A. Minimum investment is 1 gram of physical gold and maximum is capped at 1 kilogram.
    B. The maximum tenure for the SGBs is 10 years.
    C. These bonds are available in DEMAT and paper form. It is tradable in stock exchange and can be         used as a collateral for loans.

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
    (1) A and C only
    (2) B and C only
    (3) C only
    (4) A, B and C

Answer:Option(3)

Explanation: The Sovereign Gold Bond was launched in 2015 with an objective to reduce the demand for physical gold and Shift a part of the Domestic savings- used for purchase of gold-into financial savings.

• Bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, Hindu Undivided families, Trusts, Universities and Charitable Institutions.
• Minimum permissible investment is 1gm of gold. The upper limit for Individuals and HUFs is 4 Kgs each per financial year. For Trust and similar entities and upper limit of 20 kilograms per financial year is applicable. Statement 'A' is incorrect
• Term: The Gold Bonds came with the maturity period of 8 years, with an option to exit the investment after First five year. Statement 'B' is incorrect
•  These bonds are available in DEMAT and paper form. It is tradable in stock exchange and can  be used as a collateral for loans. Statement 'C' is Correct

54. Which of the following ladies wrote a historical account Humanyunama during the Mughal Period ?
(1) Gulbadan Begum
(2) Noor Begum
(3) Zebunnissah Begum
(4) Jahanara

Answer:Option(1)

55. Indian Railways strike of 1974 is a saga of heroism of ordinary railway workers and the biggest strike in the history of Indian Railways. The President of the All India Railway men’s Federation (AIRF) and the main leader of the strike was
(1) Jayaprakash Narayan
(2) George Fernandes
(3) Jagjivan Ram
(4) Narendra Desai

Answer:Option(2)

56. What is ‘Synlight’ ?
(1) A recently discovered place by NASA which produces light on its own through a combination of various physical and chemical reactions.
(2) It is a project dedicated for developing an ICBM (Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile) aimed at achieving one-tenth the speed of light.
(3) It is a project to simulate sunlight by producing an artificial sun.
(4) It is a powerful treatment of cancer using the photons of light energy.

Answer:Option(3)

57. India and United Nations Office of Disaster Risk Reduction signed a Statement of Cooperation (SoC) of the Sendai Framework of Disaster Risk Reduction in New Delhi. SFDRR is an International Treaty approved by UN member States in Sendai. Where is Sendai ?
(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) Indonesia
(4) Malaysia

Answer:Option(1)

58. Consider the following statements :
    A. Barren Island is the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia along a chain of volcanoes from         Sumatra to Myanmar.
    B. Barren Island is a part of Andaman Islands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

Answer:Option(3)

59. Consider the following measures:
    A. Repo Rate
    B. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
    C. Reverse Repo Rate

Which of the above given measures is/are used in Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) A and B only
    (2) B and C only
    (3) A and C only
    (4) A only

Answer:Option(3)

Explanation: Liquidity adjustment facity(LAF)is a monetory policy tool used in India by the central bank (RBI) through which it injects or absorb liquidity into or from the banking systems.

LAF Has two components,

1. Repo or Repurchase option : It is the rate at which Central Bank of the country (RBI in case of India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any short fall of funds with their G-Sec as collaterals.

2. Reverse Repo :  It is the rate at which Central Bank of the country (RBI in case of India) borrows money from the commercial banks of the country. 

Cash Reserve ratio: It is the amount of Liquid cash that banks have to maintain with the RBI, as a percentage of their total deposits.

60. Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Water Treaty:
       A. According to the treaty, Beas, Ravi and Sutlej are to be fully controlled by Pakistan,

           while Indus, Chenab and Jhelum are to be fully controlled by India.
       B. Initially this treaty was brokered by the Asian Development Bank.
       C. China is also a party to the agreement as Indus originates from Tibet, China.
       D. It was signed by the Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and the President of Pakistan

            Ayub Khan in Karachi on September 19, 1960.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
       (1) A and B only
       (2) B and C only
       (3) C and D only
       (4) D only

Answer: Option(4)

Explanation: In 1960, World Bank mediated and negotiated Indus water treaty between India and Pakistan. Statement 'B' is Incorrect

    Under the treaty, three eastern Indus River basin- Ravi, Sutlej and Beas were allocated to india for unrestricted use. The water of western rivers Indua, Jhelum and Chenab allocated to Pakistan except for specified domestic, non consumptive and agricultural use permitted to India. Statement 'A' is incorrect

    Indus water treaty was signed by  Prime Minister of India Jawaharlal Nehru and then President of Pakistan Ayyub Khan on September 19, 1960 in Karachi. Statement 'D' is correct

    China is not a party to the Indus water treaty. Statement 'C' is incorrect

61. The Centre has launched UDAN for regional air connectivity. Consider the following statements regarding UDAN:
    A. Airlines will have exclusive rights for three years to fly on a particular regional route.

       On these routes for regional flights, airfares will be capped at < 2,500 for an hour’s

       flight.
    B. The scheme UDAN envisages providing connectivity to un-served and under-served

        airports of the country through building new airports with state of the art modern

        infrastructure.
    C. The UDAN is likely to a give a major fillip to tourism and employment generation in

        the hinterland.

Which of the above statements are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B and C  

Answer: Option(2)

Explanation: UDAN is the regional connectivity scheme of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

• The scheme envisages providing connectivity to unserved and under-served airports of the country through the revival of existing air strips and airports.  Statement 'B' is incorrect
• Airlines will have exclusive rights for three years to fly on a particular regional route.On these routes for regional flights, airfares will be capped at < 2,500 for an hour's flight. This scheme is supported financially by viability gap funding under regional connectivity plans. Statement 'A' is correct
• The UDAN is likely to a give a major fillip to tourism and employment generation in the hinterland. Statement 'C'is correct

62. Consider the following regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) :
A. UNSC consists of 15 members.
B. Five permanent members are USA, UK, Japan, Russia and China.
C. Ten non-permanent members are elected on a regional basis to serve for five-year terms.
 
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C

Answer: Option(1)

Explanation:

United Nations Security Council was established by the UN charter in 1945. It is One of the six principal organ of the UN charter.

Members:

• The Council has 15 members: the five permanent members and ten non permanent members elected for two year terms.
• The five permanent members are the United States, the russian federation, France, China and the United Kingdom.
• Each year all the members of UNGA elects five non- permanent members for two year term at the UNSC.
• A retiring memebr is not eligible for immediate re-election.

63. Which of the following temples was/were built by the Hoysalas ?
    A. Chennakesava Temple at Somnathapura
    B. Lad Khan Temple at Aihole
    C. Someshwara Temple at Bangalore
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) B and C only
(3) A, B and C
(4) None of the above.

Answer:Option(1)

Explanation:

• Chennakeshava Temple at Somanathapura built is a vaishnava Hindi Temple on the banks of River Kaveri in Somanathapura Karnataka. Temple was built by  Somanatha Dandanayaka a Army general of King Narasimha III in 13th Century. 
• Lad Khan Temple is dedicated to Shiva is one of the oldest Hindu temple located in Aihole was believed to be built by Chalukyas first rule Pulikesi I in 5th entury(Around 450 AD)
• Someshwara Temple at bangalore was built by Cholas

64. Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India :
A. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 1st January 1949.
B. Reserve Bank of India is a member bank of the Asian Clearing Union.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

Answer: Option(3)

Explanation:

• RBI was nationalised as per RBI Act, 1948 with effect from 1st January, 1949.  
• Asian Clearing Union is an organisation set up to provide a system for clearing payments among the member countries on a multilateral basis. India, Iran, Pakistan, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka are its members.

65. An app ‘‘Kaizala’’ has been recently launched as a productivity app for Indian organizations which is powered by Azure Cloud platform. The service of this app is designed as a large group communication and work management. Which of the following technological giants has launched it?
(1) Verizon
(2) Microsoft
(3) Apple
(4) Wipro

Answer:Option(2)

Note: It is Current affairs of that time

Category: Government Schemes/ Apps/ web portals/Technology in news

66. A bank has recently acquired Snapdeal-owned mobile wallet FreeCharge to strengthen its position in the payments space. This acquisition is expected to help the bank take a significant step towards digital distribution of financial products. Which bank has done it ?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) Axis Bank
(3) Barclays Bank
(4) HDFC Bank

Answer: Option(2)

Category: Current Affairs/ Economy

67. A country has recently declared its government’s full independence from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and World Bank, after announcing last year that it will no longer respond to their demands.
Which of the following countries has declared it ?
(1) Peru
(2) Bolivia
(3) Turkey
(4) Egypt

Answer: Option(2)

Category: Current Affairs/ International Organizations.

68. In which one of the Five Year Plans, was the EXIM Bank established in India ?
(1) Second
(2) Fourth
(3) Fifth
(4) Sixth

Answer: Option(4)

Explanation: During the Sixth Five Year Plan the EXIM bank was established in India. Export-Import Bank of India is the premier export finance institution of the country, established in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act 1981. It is Wholly owned by Government of India entity.

HQ: New Delhi

69. Consider the following statements :
    A. Island Development Agency (IDA) was set up on 1st June, 2017 following the Prime Minister’s

         review meeting for the development of islands.
    B. After detailed consultation, 10 islands have been identified for the holistic development in the first

        phase.
    C. Union Minister Shri Rajnath Singh chaired the first meeting held on 24th July, 2017.

 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B and C 

Answer:Option(4)

Explanation:

• The IDA was set up on June 01, 2017 following the Prime Minister’s review meeting for the development of islands. 
• The Union Home Minister Shri Rajnath Singh chaired the first meeting of the Islands Development Agency (IDA)
• After detailed consultations with key stakeholders, 10 islands namely Smith, Ross, Aves, Long and Little Andaman in Andaman & Nicobar and Minicoy, Bangaram, Suheli, Cherium and Tinnakara in Lakshadweep have been identified for holistic development in the first phase.

Note: These Are Current affairs facts of that time, Update your notes with the recent news.

70. The Reserve Bank of India has designated Karnataka Bank as an A1+ class scheduled commercial bank. Where are the headquarters of the Karnataka Bank Ltd. ?
(1) Bangalore
(2) Mangalore
(3) Mysore
(4) Udupi

Answer:Option(2)

71. Consider the following statements :
    A. In India more than 60% of the total track kilometerage of railways is electrified.
    B. The railway network in India is divided into 19 zones.
    C. The Zonal Headquarters of East Central Railway are at Kolkata.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
    (1) A and B only
    (2) A and C only
    (3) A, B and C
    (4) None of the above

Answer:Option:(4)

Explanation:

• The Railway Network in India is divided in 16 zones. Statement 'B' is incorrect
• The Zonal Headquarter of East Central Railway is Hajipur. Statement 'C is incorrect

Hence None of the above statements are correct

72. Consider the following statements:
A. India ranks highest in Human Development Index (HDI) among all SAARC member countries.
B. India ranks lowest in Human Development Index (HDI) among all BRICS member countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

Note: This is dynamic and current affairs based question. Data may change every year. So readers are advised to adjust the the answer as per current HDI data.

73. A man observes that a flag-pole outside his home casts no shadow on 21st December at 12 o’clock noon. His home is at which of the following ?
(1) North Pole
(2) South Pole
(3) Tropic of Cancer
(4) Tropic of Capricorn

Answer: Option(4)

Explanation:

    Sun rays fall vertically On Tropic of cancer on 21st December due to solstice (Winter in northern hemisphere and Summer in southern hemisphere).

    Hence the flagpole casts no shadow on 21st December near Tropic of Capricorn.

74. Match the Universities (List I) with their first Vice chancellor (List II):

 

List I (University)		List I (First Vice Chancellor)
A	University of Mysore	I	Chandrashekhara Kambar
B	Kuvempu University	II	H. V. Nanjundaiah
C	Mangalore University	III	Shanthinatha Desai
D	Kannada University	IV	B. Sheik Ali

 

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
                   A     B    C     D
         (1)     III     II    I     IV
         (2)     II     III    I     IV
         (3)     IV     II   III    I
         (4)     II     III   IV    I

Answer: Option(4)

75. The Bangalore disturbances of 1928, also known as Ganapati Galabhe and Hindu-Muslim Gharshane were a series of Hindu-Muslim clashes which took place in the city of Bangalore over construction of a niche on a Ganesh idol in a school premises. Maharaja of Mysore constituted a committee to enquire into the event. Who was the head of the committee ?
(1) Sir Mirza Ismail
(2) Sir M. Visvesvaraya
(3) K.T. Bhashyam
(4) Albion Banerjee

Answer:Option(2)

76. ‘‘The Sanskrit Language, whatever be its antiquity, is of a wonderful structure : more perfect than Greek, more copious than Latin and more exquisitely refined than either, yet bringing to both of them a stronger affinity, both in roots of verbs and in the form of Grammar ....’’ Which of the following scholars said the above statement ?
(1) William Jones
(2) Thomas McCaulay
(3) Colebrooke
(4) John Gilchrist

Answer: Option(1)

77. The East India Company (EIC) was also known informally as which of the following?
(1) Daniels Company
(2) John Company
(3) Company of Interlopers
(4) Job Charlock Company

Answer: Option(4)

78. Consider the following statements :
A. Amir Khusro created a new literary style in Persian which came to be known as Sabaq-i-Hindi.
B. Amir Khusro was a disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya.
C. He introduced the Perso-Arabic ragas etc.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B and C

Answer:Option(4)

Explanation:

    Amir Khusrau (Amir Khusrow), also known as Abul Hasan Yamin ud-Din Khusrau (1253–1325 AD), was an Indo-Persian Sufi singer, musician, poet, and scholar. He lived for 72 years, out of which 60 years he lived in the courts of as many as seven different rulers of the Delhi Sultanate.

• He also created a new literary style in Persian, called Sabaq-i-Hind.
• He also created new Perso-Arabic ragas like ainam, ghora, sanam, etc
• He is also credited with enriching Indian classical music by introducing Persian and Arabic elements in it, and was the originator of the khayal and tarana styles of music.
• He is credited with inventing the sitar and making a substantial contribution to the creation of the ghazal.

79. Consider the following statements :
    A. Bhakti Saint Namdev was a tailor by profession.
    B. Bhakti Saint Kabir was a weaver by profession.
    C. Bhakti Saint Ravidas was a cobbler by profession.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) C only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B and C

Answer:Option(4)

Explanation:

Bhakti movement refers to ideals and engagement that emerged in the medieval era on love and devotionto religious concepts built around one or more gods and goddesses. Bhakti movement preached against the caste system using the local languages.

Importance of Bhakti movement

1. Development of regional languages and mass connect.

2. Upliftment of Lower strata of the society.

3. Improved condition of women.

4. Prayers and religion became more individualistic in nature.

Namdev:

• He was a tailor by profession
• He emphasized on cultural unity of the Marathas by introducing a tradition called Mahapurusha Sampraday.
• He believed in equality of all men and women.
• He advocated the practice of devotion to realize god
• Some of his devotional songs are found in the Guru Granth Sahib

Kabir:

• He was born near banaras to a brahmin widow, But he was brought up by a Muslim couple who were weavers by profession.
• Kabir's object was to reconcile Hindus and Muslims and establish harmony between the two sects.
• He believed in formless God and he denounced idolatry and laid great emphasis on the equality of man before god.
• He wrote- Sabad, Bijak, Doha, Holi, and Rekhtal. He propagated Ram Bhakti.

Ravidas:

• It is believed that Saint Ravidas born in Varanasi in cobbler's family
• Ravidas Jayanti was celebrated on Magh Purnima
• He is believed to be a disciple of the bhakti saint-poet Ramananda and a contemporary of the bhakti saint-poet Kabir.
• One of the famous disciples of the saint, Mirabai.

80.  Consider the following statements about the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918 :
    A. It was related mainly to the dispute between the Indian workers and the European mill owners

         regarding hours of work and grant of leaves.
    B. Anusuya Ben Sarabhai, sister of the one of the rich mill owners of Ahmedabad was one of the

        leaders of the movement.
    C. Gandhiji used the weapon of hunger strike.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C

Answer:Option(2)

Explanation: Ahmedabad Mill Strike -1918 (First Hunger Strike).

    Ahmedabad mill strike was the one of the initial movements led by Gandhi after his return from South africa.

- There was situation of Dispute between mill owners of Ahmedabad and the workers over the issue of 

   discontinuation of the plague bonus. Statement'A' is incorrect

- The workers were demanding a rise of 50 percent in their wages so that they could manage the wartime inflation and the hardships of post plague scenario and mill owners were ready to pay 20 percent wage hike.

- This situationed worsened the relationship between mill owners and the workers. Then workers turned towards Anusuyaben Sarabhai sister of one of the mill owners and social activists. Anusuya Ben wen to gandhi who was repected by mill owners and workers to resolve the deadlock. Statement 'B' is correct

- Gandhi advised workers to go on a strike for 35 percent increase 

- Gandhi advised workers to remain non violent, and when negotiations with the owners did not progress, he himself took fast unto death to strengthen workers resolve. and the matter transferred to tribunal. Statement 'C' is correct.

- The result was the strike was successful and the workers got 35 percent wage hike.

81. The Current Account on the Balance of Payments in India is functionally classified into which two categories ?
(1) Merchandise and Invisibles
(2) Loans and Amortisation
(3) Foreign Investments and Foreign Currency Deposits
(4) None of the above                                                                                                                                                                                                                       

Answer:Option(1)

Explanation:

    Balance of  Payments (BoP) is a systematic records of all economic transactions made between the residents and non-residents of a country for a specific time period.

    There are two main accounts in BoP , The Current Account and Capital Accout.

1. Current Account :

    Visible : Trade in Goods (Merchandise)

    Invisible: 

        - Trade in Services

        - Income : Profit, Interests, Dividend

        - Transfers: Remittance, Donations and Gifts.

2. Capital and Financial Account:

        - Investment: FDI, FPI

        - Loans 

        - RBI's Foreign Exchange Reserve

        - Non resident's investment in bank, Insurance, Pension Schemes

82. Consider the following statements about Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) :
    A. It was launched as a part of National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM).
    B. The objective was to improve maternal and neo-natal health by provision of institutional

         deliveries.
    C. It is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
Which of the above statements are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B and C

Answer:Option(4)     

Explanation:

 - Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) 

- It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women. 

- The Yojana, launched on 12th April 2005, by the Hon’ble Prime Minister, is being implemented in all states and UTs with special focus on low performing states. 

-  JSY is a 100 % centrally sponsored scheme and it integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care.

83. Which of the following projects of the Government of India is related to delivery of free messages relevant to pregnancy, delivery and childcare to the families of pregnant women ?
(1) Kilkari
(2) Anmol
(3) Srijan
(4) Kishore 

Answer:Option(1)

Note: Question is from Current Affairs of that time

Category: Government Schemes

84. What was the average literacy rate of Karnataka in 2011 Census ?

(1) 75·36%
(2) 57·63%
(3) 66·65%

(4) 81·14%

Answer: Option(1) 

Category: Current Affairs/Society/Human Geography.

85. What is not true about PMAY – CLSS (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme)?
(1) Beneficiaries of Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and Low Income Groups (LIG) seeking housing loans from banks, Housing Finance Companies and other such institutions would be eligible for an interest subsidy for loans upto < 6 lakhs.
(2) There is no Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme for Medium Income Groups (MIG).
(3) HUDCO and NHB have been identified as Central Nodal Agencies to channelize subsidy to the lending institutions and for monitoring the progress of this component.
(4) None of the above

Answer:

86.  With which of the following is the Hartog Committee Report associated with?
(1) The growth of education in British India and potentialities of its future progress
(2) Working of diarchy as laid down in Montagu-Chelmsford reforms
(3) To review the features of India for future political reforms
(4) Report on existing condition of labourers and recommendations for amending labour laws.

 

Answer: Option(1)

Explanation: Hartog Committee (1929).

    An increase in number of schools and colleges had led to deterioration of education standards. A Hartog comittee was set up to report om development of education. Its main recommendations were as follows.   

1. Emphasis should be given to primary education but there need be no hasty expansion or compulsion in education. 

2. Only deserving students should go in for high school and intermediate stage, while average student should be diverted to vocational courses after VIII standard.

3. For improvements in standards of university education, admissions should be restricted. 

87.  For the offer of which of the following did Gandhiji say, “It is a post-dated cheque drawn on a crashing bank”?

(1) Cripps Mission offer of Dominion Status after the war

(2) Mont-Ford reforms to introduce self-governance gradually in India

(3) Simon Commission’s recommendations

(4) None of the above                                                                                                                                   

Answer: Option(1)

                                                                                                                                                                      88. The Tiananmen Square massacre in China was a reaction to
(1) Deng Xiaoping’s plan to revive the cultural revolution
(2) Student demands for greater individual rights and freedom of expression
(3) China’s decision to seek Western investors
(4) Great Britain’s decision to return Hong Kong to China                                                              

Answer: Option(2)  

89. Which country recently hosted the BRICS Youth Forum (BYF) in July 2017, to discuss the development of youth in the countries of the grouping?
(1) Brazil

(2) Russia
(3) China

(4) South Africa 

Answer: Option(3)  

Note : Current affairs of that time. Please Update your Notes with recent events.

Category: International Organisations and their Summits.

90. The Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley has recently launched a new pension scheme for senior citizens in New Delhi in July 2017. It can be purchased offline as well as online, through LIC and is exempted from Service Tax or GST and will provide an assured return of 8% per annum payable monthly for 10 years. What is the name of the scheme?
(1) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY)
(2) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vikas Yojana (PMVVY)
(3) Pradhan Mantri Vriddha Vishesh Yojana (PMVVY)

(4) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Varun Yojana (PMVVY)

Answer: Option(1)

Note: Question Sentence explains the Scheme.

For More Info Read Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (Click Here)

91. The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has recently rolled out India’s first unmanned remotely operated tank at its Chennai lab. What is the name of the Tank ?
(1) Muntra
(2) Swayambhu
(3) Ojaswi
(4) Martand      

Answer: Option(1) 

92. Who presided over the Flag Satyagraha movement organized by the Karnataka Pradesh Congress Committee (KPCC) at Shivapura ?
(1) Mailara Mahadevappa
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) T. Siddalingaiah

(4) K.C. Reddy 

Answer: Option(3)

Explanation:

For more information about Shivapura flag Styagraha Movement (Click Here) 

93. The former James Bond movie star who starred in seven James Bond films like Moonraker (1979), Octopussy (1983), A View to a Kill (1985), died recently in Switzerland at the age of 89 in May 2017. What is the name of the star ?
(1) Harrison Ford
(2) Roger Moore
(3) Sean Connery
(4) Guy Hamilton

Answer: Option(2)

94. Identify the correct sequence of river catchment areas in Karnataka, in descending order :

(1) Kaveri, North Pennar, Krishna, Godavari

(2) Krishna, Kaveri, North Pennar, Godavari

(3) Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari, North Pennar

(4) North Pennar, Godavari, Kaveri, Krishna

Answer:  Option(B)

Explanation:

Catchment Area : It is the river drains the water from a specific area which is called its catchment area.

• Krishna River - 113271 Sq. Km Catchment In Karnataka
• Godavari River - 4405 Sq. Km
• Kaveri - 34273 sq.km 
• North Pennar - 13610 sq.km

95. With reference to the Electoral Bonds mentioned in Budget 2017 – 18, consider the following statements:

A. The bonds may be purchased by cash, cheque or draft from nationalized banks only.

B. They will be issued by the Election Commission of India.

C. They will be the only instrument to make donations to political parties. Other than these bonds no payment in any form can be made to political parties for donations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B only

(2) A and B only

(3) A, B and C

(4) None of the above

Answer: Option(4)

Explanation: Electoral Bonds Bonds

Electoral Bonds are Announced in Budget 2017 and Notified by Department of Economic Affairs, Finance Ministry.

• The State Bank of India (SBI) is authorised to issue and encash these bonds in the dominations of Rs. 1000, Rs. 10000, Rs. 1000000, Rs. 10,00,000 and Rs. 1,00,00,000
• Only Indian Citizen or Company Registered in india can buy the electoral Bonds.
• The donor shall be permitted to buy the bonds through check or digital payments.
• Only the political parties registered under section 29A of Representation of People's Act and have secured not less tha 1% votespolled in the last general elction to the Loksabha or state legislative assembly are eligible to recieve donations through electoral bonds.
• People can donate to political parties through cash upto Rs. 20000.

96. Consider the following statements regarding the ICC Champions Trophy, 2017 :

A. In the ICC Champions Trophy, 2017, Pakistan defeated India in the final played at The Oval, London.

B. The highest runs scored in this tournament were by Shikhar Dhawan from India.

C. The Man of the Match Award for the final match was given to Fakhar Zaman of Pakistan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Select the code for the correct answer for the options given below :

(1) A only

(2) A and C only

(3) C only

(4) A, B and C       

Answer: Option(4)

Note: Question is from Current Affairs of that time. Update your notes with recent sporting events

Category: Sports

97. With reference to the proposed Payments Regulatory Board in the Union Budget 2017 – 2018, consider the following statements :
    A. It will replace the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment Systems.
    B. Union Finance Minister will be the Chairman of the Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

Answer: Option(1)

Explanation:

• Payments Regulatory Board is proposed in the Union Budget 2017 – 2018.
• Payments regulatory Board will be created Under Reserve Bank of India and it will replace the Board for Regulation and supervision of Payments Systems. Statement 'A' is correct
• The Proposed board will have the RBI governor as the chairperson, along with a deputy governor in charge of the payments as member, besides RBI officer nominated by the RBI Board. It will also have three members nominated by the central government. (6 member body) Statement 'B' is incorrect

98. Match the waterfalls (List I) with the rivers (List II) On which they are situated:

List I (Waterfall)		List II (River)
A	Barkana	I	Kali
B	Magod	II	Sita
C	Lalguli	III	Sonda
D	Shivaganga	IV	Bedti

      

        Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:

 

                  A     B    C     D

         (1)    IV     I      II    III

         (2)    II     IV     I     III

         (3)    II     I       IV   III

         (4)    III    II      I     IV

        

Answer: Option(2)

Explanation:

• Barkana Waterfalls formed by Sita river near Agumbe in Shivamogga district.
• Magod Waterfalls formed by Bedti river near yallapur in Uttara Kannada district. 
• Lalguli Waterfalls formed by Kali River in Uttara Kannada district.
• Shivaganga Waterfalls formed by Sonda River in Uttara Kannada district.

99. Which of the following Sultans of Delhi introduced the practice of ‘‘Sijda’’ and implemented the Iranian theory of divine rights which said that the Sultan is the representative of God on Earth?
(1) Balban
(2) Alauddin Khilji
(3) Mohammad-bin-Tuglaq
(4) Iltutmish 

Answer:Option(1)   

Explanation:

- Ghiyasuddin Balban (1266-1287) was the first Sultan of Delhi to introduce the practice of 'Sijda'. and implemented the Iranian theory of divine rights which said that the Sultan is the representative of God on Earth..

- He started Sijda  and Paibos as the  form of Salutation of the king.

- In Sijda people had to Kneel down and touch the ground with their head to greet the Sultan.

100. Which of the following kings assumed the title of “Talakadugonda” ?
(1) Veera Ballala III
(2) Kulothunga Chola III
(3) Vishnuvardhana
(4) Narasimha II

Answer: Option(3)

 

Explanation:

Vishnuvardhana is a famous Hoysala king Earned the title of Talakadugonda    

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